1. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
xxxHDLC
Frame Relay
2. What is a characteristic feature of a worm?
xxxexploits a known vulnerability
attaches to executable programs
masquerades as a legitmate program
lies dormant until triggered by an event, time, or date
3.An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
xxxIPv4 is incompatible with RIPng
4.Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of a security policy?
xxxIt creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not need altering once it is implemented.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumvention of security measures
5. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?
QoS
latency
reliability
xxxconfidentiality
6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay on router HQ. It is desired that each Frame Relay PVC between the routers be in a separate subnet. Which two commands on HQ will accomplish this task for the connection to R1? (Choose two.)
HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0
HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 multipoint
xxxHQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 point-to-point
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 103
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 301
xxxHQ(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 301 broadcast
7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are directly connected over a point-to-point serial link. Router1 initiates a PPP session with Router2. Which statement is true based on the configuration?
The password is sent in clear text.
The routers are unable to authenticate.
The username and password are sent encrypted.
xxxA hash value of the username and password are sent.
8. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
xxxThe router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
9. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
xxxThere is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
xxxOne access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term "inbound" refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
xxxa manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses
11. A company uses a PVC with a committed information rate (CIR) of 128 kb/s and a committed burst information rate (CBIR) of 64 kb/s. The link is used to periodically send updates at a rate of 144 kb/s. What will happen to the update traffic?
The traffic will be sent, but the company will be charged a penalty.
The traffic will be sent using the additional CBIR and will be guaranteed delivery.
xxxThe traffic will be dropped at the CO for exceeding the committed information rate.
The traffic will be sent, but the burst traffic will be marked for discard if congestion is encountered.
12. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
xxxPort Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.
13. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
xxxConfigure dynamic NAT with overload.
14. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?
application
transport
xxxnetwork
data link
physical
15. Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop.
xxxThe VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.
16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the extended ACL when applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2?
All IP traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Both IP and Telnet traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Only Telnet traffic destined for 172.16.10.0/24 will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
xxxTelnet traffic will be permitted only during the specified days and time range. All other network traffic will be permitted any time.
17. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it.
xxxDeliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
xxxCreate passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
xxxUse combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.
18. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?
The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.
19. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
xxxsource IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
20. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
xxxto create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers
21. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation?
Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
xxxIt will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.
22. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted.
Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network
Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port.
xxxTraffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations.
23. At what point in the PPP connection process does the authentication phase occur?
after NCP establishes Layer 3 parameters
xxxbefore LCP begins the link establishment process
after the initial Configure-Request message from the link initiator
after the link initiator receives a Configure-Ack message from the responder
24. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
xxxapplication layer
25. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?
The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
xxxA congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.
26. A light manufacturing company wishes to replace its DSL service with a non-line-of-sight broadband wireless solution that offers comparable speeds. Which solution should the customer choose?
Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet
27. Refer to the exhibit. This router is being configured to use SDM, but the SDM interface of the router cannot be accessed. What is the cause of the problem?
xxxThe VTY lines are not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The username and password are not configured correctly.
28. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?
BE
DE
xxxCIR
CBIR
29.Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?
DLCI 123
xxxDLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router
30. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
xxxdemarcation point
demilitarized zone
31. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
xxxreduced jitter
reduced costs
xxxreduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers
32. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17". What is the problem?
The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.
xxxThe pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.
The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.
The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.
33.A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?
The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
xxxThe service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.
34. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?
ATM
Frame Relay
xxxHDLC
PPP
SDLC
35. Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?
flow control
error control
xxxauthentication
synchronous communication
36. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache
37. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the core router devices?
They use multiport internetworking devices to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.
They provide termination for the digital signal and ensure connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
xxxThey support multiple telecommunications interfaces of the highest speed and are able to forward IP packets at full speed on all of those interfaces.
38. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
xxxThe RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.
39. Which two protocols in combination should be used to establish a link with secure authentication between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? (Choose two.)
HDLC
xxxPPP
xxxSLIP
PAP
CHAP
40. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?
improper LMI type
interface reset
PPP negotiation failure
unplugged cable
41. Which statement is true about NCP?
Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.
xxxEach network protocol has a corresponding NCP.
NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request packet that enters interface S0/0/0, and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 172.16.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created by access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
xxxThe router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 command, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
43. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?
xxxEnable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates
44. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?
The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.
xxxThe commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.
The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.
The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.
45. Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?
xxxantivirus application
operating system patches
intrusion prevention system
Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
46. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
A wildcard mask must be created by inverting the subnet mask.
A wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
xxxA wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 means the address should match exactly.
A wildcard mask uses a "1" to identify IP address bits that must be checked.
47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?
Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
xxxCheck that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.
48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?
Replace the serial cable .
Replace the WIC on RA.
xxxConfigure RA with a clock rate command.
Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.
49. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?
application
transport
network
xxxdata link
physical
50. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?
extended
xxxreflexive
standard
time-based
51. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable?
Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet
52. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.
xxxExtended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
Thursday, May 27, 2010
Tuesday, May 18, 2010
Chapter 8 - Network Troubleshooting
1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
data link
2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
network analyzer
7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
baselining tool
10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
determining ownership
14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
transport layer
application layer
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
physical
16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
bottom up
17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
application
20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
data link
data link
2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
network analyzer
7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
baselining tool
10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
determining ownership
14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
transport layer
application layer
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
physical
16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
bottom up
17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
application
20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
data link
Tuesday, April 27, 2010
Chapter 7
1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
open port 20
open port 21
NAT with port forwarding
9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0
11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
access-list statement
12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?
8
13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
172.30.20.2
17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
static NAT
18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
64
19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
open port 20
open port 21
NAT with port forwarding
9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0
11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
access-list statement
12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?
8
13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
172.30.20.2
17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
static NAT
18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
64
19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
Friday, April 16, 2010
Chapter 6
1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
encryption
encapsulation
7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
DES
RSA
8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
ESP
9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
DSL
10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
authentication
data confidentiality
data integrity
11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
a WiMAX receiver
12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
smart cards
13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. Which statement describes cable?
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
IPsec
PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a remote-access VPN
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
encryption
encapsulation
7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
DES
RSA
8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
ESP
9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
DSL
10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
authentication
data confidentiality
data integrity
11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
a WiMAX receiver
12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
smart cards
13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. Which statement describes cable?
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
IPsec
PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a remote-access VPN
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
Tuesday, March 16, 2010
CCNA 2 Chapter 5
1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
7. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
The last 3 bits will be ignored
The first 29 bits will be checked
10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
R3 Fa0/0 inbound
11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
by source IP address
12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
extended ACL
authentication
Telnet connectivity
13. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?
reflexive
14. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?
They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
15. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.
16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
Wildcard 0.0.0.0 is assumed
17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.
18. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list
19. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
permitted in and out of all interfaces
20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
21. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.
24. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
25. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
7. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
The last 3 bits will be ignored
The first 29 bits will be checked
10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
R3 Fa0/0 inbound
11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
by source IP address
12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
extended ACL
authentication
Telnet connectivity
13. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?
reflexive
14. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?
They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
15. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.
16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
Wildcard 0.0.0.0 is assumed
17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.
18. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list
19. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
permitted in and out of all interfaces
20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
21. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.
24. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
25. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
Wednesday, March 3, 2010
Chapter 4 Answers
1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.
6. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.
7. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
virus
8. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
DoS
9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?
to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
10. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
11. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
The TFTP server software has not been started.
14
Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.
15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
ROM monitor
direct connection through the console port
16. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
document the resources to be protected
identify the security objectives of the organization
17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?
The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
20. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
monitoring
21. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?
SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.
22
What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.
6. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.
7. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
virus
8. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
DoS
9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?
to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
10. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
11. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
The TFTP server software has not been started.
14
Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.
15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
ROM monitor
direct connection through the console port
16. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
document the resources to be protected
identify the security objectives of the organization
17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?
The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
20. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
monitoring
21. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?
SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.
22
What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.
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